Get Through DRCOG

SBAs, EMQs and McQs

Rekha Wuntakal, Madhavi Kalidindi, Antony Hollingworth

• Publisher: CRC Press
• Year: 2014
• Print ISBN: 9781138455085
• eBook ISBN: 9780429586323
• Topic: Medicine
• Subtopic: Family Medicine & General Practice

The book provides advice on how to prepare for the examination and how questions should be approached to obtain the highest marks. With more than 350 questions, preparation tips and extensive answer explanations, it is the definitive resource for those attempting the DRCOG. The book is comprehensive and authoritative: written by an experienced auth

1	BASIC CLINICAL SKILLS – QUESTIONS

SBAs

Question 1

A 22-year-old Asian woman is admitted to the hospital with an incomplete miscarriage at 11 weeks’ gestation. An ultrasound shows a ‘snow storm’ appearance. She passes grape-like vesicles through the vagina. She subsequently has a surgical evacuation of the uterus. The histology reveals a large mass with hydropic changes in all the placental villi and no fetal tissue. She is followed up with serum beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (βhCG) levels. There was an initial fall but it started to rise gradually (10,000 units/mL) at 3 months’ follow up. Her CT scan chest, abdomen and pelvis are normal except localized thickened vascular area in the posterior wall of uterus. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Gestational choriocarcinoma

B. Persistent trophoblastic disease

C. Non-invasive mole

D. Non-gestational choriocarcinoma

E. Placental site trophoblastic disease

Question 2

A 30-year-old woman presents to the early pregnancy unit with mild vaginal bleeding. An ultrasound is performed, which reports a complete molar pregnancy. What would be the parental origin and genetic complement of the complete molar pregnancy?

A. 2 paternal sets: diploid

B. 2 paternal sets: haploid

C. 1 paternal set: haploid

D. 2 paternal and 2 maternal sets: tetraploid

E. 1 maternal and 1 paternal set: diploid

Question 3

A 22-year-old Asian woman is admitted to the hospital with an incomplete miscarriage at 11 weeks’ gestation. She subsequently has surgical evacuation of the uterus. The histology reveals a large mass with hydropic changes in all the placental villi with no fetal tissue. Which of the following is the most likely karyotype and parental chromosomal origin?

A. 46 XX, maternal

B. 46 XX, paternal

C. 46 XY, paternal

D. 69 XXY, paternal

E. 69 XXY, paternal and maternal

Question 4

A 22-year-old Asian woman is admitted to the hospital with an incomplete miscarriage at 11 weeks’ gestation. She subsequently has surgical evacuation of the uterus. The histology reveals focal hydropic placental villi interspersed with normal villi and presence of fetal tissue. Which of the following is the most likely karyotype and parental chromosomal origin?

A. 46 XX, maternal

B. 46 XX, paternal

C. 46 XY, paternal

D. 69 XXY, paternal

E. 69 XXY, paternal and maternal

Question 5

Which one of the following statements is not true with respect to bacterial vaginosis (BV)?

A. Isolation of Gardnerella vaginalis on high vaginal swab culture is diagnostic of BV.

B. Vaginal pH is increased and is typically more than 4.5.

C. Presence of ‘clue cells’ on microscopy is diagnostic of bacterial vaginosis.

D. It is associated with preterm labour or miscarriage.

E. It is the commonest cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of reproductive age.

Question 6

In relation to the treatment of BV, which one of the following statements is true?

A. Routine treatment of male partners is recommended.

B. Vaginal douching is beneficial for symptomatic improvement.

C. Metronidazole is not safe during the first trimester of pregnancy.

D. Clindamycin 2% intravaginal cream is not effective.

E. Recurrent BV is difficult to manage as it can recur in up to 70% of females within 3 months of treatment.

Question 7

Which one of the following statements is false with respect to the risks of advanced maternal age?

A. Increased risk of pre-eclampsia

B. No increase or decrease in the stillbirth rate

C. Increased rate of instrumental delivery

D. Increased risk of gestational diabetes

E. Increased rate of caesarean section

Question 8

A 28-year-old para 1 woman with a dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA) twin pregnancy attends her antenatal appointment at 20 weeks’ gestation. She is at risk of developing the following complications with the exception of which of the following?

A. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

B. Pre-eclampsia

C. Postpartum haemorrhage

D. Fetal growth restriction

E. Preterm labour

Question 9

A 30-year-old para 2 woman with a BMI of 45 attends the antenatal clinic at 10 weeks’ gestation. One of the following is incorrect with respect to the a...

Table of contents

• Cover
• Half Title
• Title Page
• Copyright Page
• Table of Contents
• Introduction
• 1 Basic clinical skills – Questions
• 2 Basic clinical skills – Answers
• 3 Basic surgical skills – Questions
• 4 Basic surgical skills – Answers
• 5 Antenatal care – Questions
• 6 Antenatal care – Answers
• 7 Management of labour and delivery – Questions
• 8 Management of labour and delivery – Answers
• 9 Postpartum problems (the Puerperium), including neonatal problems – Questions
• 10 Postpartum problems (the Puerperium), including neonatal problems – Answers
• 11 Gynaecological problems – Questions
• 12 Gynaecological problems – Answers
• 13 Fertility control (Contraception and termination of pregnancy) – Questions
• 14 Fertility control (Contraception and termination of pregnancy) – Answers